Clinical and other personnel who work in intensive outpatient treatment
(IOT) programs should be aware of legal and ethical issues that affect their
operations. Primary among these issues are several in the area of
confidentiality or protection of the client's right to privacy.
For example, an IOT program that assesses and treats patients may need to
seek information from other (collateral) sources, such as employers, criminal
justice agencies, schools, relatives (including parents), and medical personnel.
How can programs approach these sources and at the same time protect the
client's right to privacy? How can the program and the many diverse agencies
concerned with or responsible for the patient's welfare communicate with each
other without violating the confidentiality rules? Can a program communicate
with an employer who has referred a client to treatment?
Are there special rules about sharing information with criminal justice
agencies? Can a program contact a parent of a minor client without the minor's
consent? If the patient is threatening harm to him- or herself or another, can
the program call the authorities? How can programs handle clients who show up
intoxicated or impaired and insist on driving? Can programs call on the police
if a client becomes violent? Can programs report suspected child abuse or
neglect?
This chapter attempts to answer these questions.
The first subsection provides an overview of the Federal laws and
regulations protecting the right to privacy of any patient seeking or receiving
AOD services.
The second offers a detailed discussion of the rules governing the use of
consent forms to get a patient's permission to release information.
The third reviews the rules for communicating with others about a client,
including how agencies can communicate with each other and how programs can warn
others of a client's threat to harm.
The fourth discusses other exceptions that permit programs to disclose
information.
The final subsection adds a few points about the client's right to
confidential services and the need for programs to use legal assistance.
Federal Confidentiality Laws
Two Federal laws and a set of regulations guarantee the strict
confidentiality of information about all persons receiving alcohol and other
drug (AOD) abuse prevention and treatment services. The legal citation for
these laws and regulations is 42 U.S.C. §§290dd-3 and ee-3 and 42
C.F.R. Part 2. (For a discussion of the rules governing release of
HIV/AIDS-related information, see the CSAT TIP Screening for Infectious
Diseases Among Substance Abusers.)
These laws and regulations are designed to protect clients' privacy rights
in order to engage people in treatment. The regulations restrict these
communications more than those in many situations, such as the doctor-patient or
the attorney-client privilege. Violating the regulations is punishable by a
fine of up to $500 for a first offense or up to $5,000 for each subsequent
offense (§2.4). (Citations in the form "§2..." refer to specific
sections of 42 C.F.R. Part 2.)
While some may view the restrictions that the Federal regulations place on
communications with others as an irritation or a barrier to their program goals,
most of the nettlesome problems that arise under the regulations can easily be
avoided through foresight. Familiarity with the regulations will facilitate
communication and reduce the conflicts among program, patient, and outside
agency to a few relatively rare situations.
Programs Governed by the Regulations
Any program that specializes, in whole or in part, in providing treatment,
counseling and/or assessment, and referral services for patients with AOD
problems must comply with the Federal confidentiality regulations (§2.12(e)).
Although the Federal regulations apply only to programs that receive Federal
assistance, this includes indirect forms of Federal aid such as tax-exempt
status, or State or local government funding coming (in whole or in part) from
the Federal government.
Coverage under the Federal regulations does not depend on how a program
characterizes its services. Calling itself a "prevention program" does not
insulate a program from following the confidentiality rules. It is the kind of
services, not the label, that determines whether the program must comply with
the Federal law.
The General Rule
The Federal confidentiality laws and regulations protect any information
about a client if the client has applied for or received any AOD-related
services -- including assessment, diagnosis, counseling, group counseling,
treatment or referral for treatment -- from a covered program. Only clients who
have "applied for or received" services from a program are protected. If a
client has not yet been evaluated or counseled by a program and has not him- or
herself sought help from the program, the program is free to discuss the
client's drug or alcohol problems with others. But, from the time the client
applies for services or the program first conducts an evaluation or begins
counseling, the Federal regulations govern patient information.
The restrictions on disclosure apply to any information that would identify
the patient as an AOD abuser, either directly or by implication. The general
rule applies from the time the patient makes an appointment. It also applies to
clients who are civilly or involuntarily committed, clients who are mandated
into treatment by the criminal justice system, and former clients. The rule
applies whether or not the person making an inquiry already has the information,
has other ways of getting it, enjoys official status, is authorized by State
law, or comes armed with a subpoena or search warrant. (For an explanation
regarding the response to persons with subpoenas and search and arrest warrants,
see Confidentiality: A Guide to the Federal Laws and Regulations,
published in 1991 by the Legal Action Center, 153 Waverly Place, New York, NY
10014.)
Sharing Confidential Information
Information that is protected by the Federal confidentiality regulations may
always be disclosed after the patient has signed a proper consent form. (As
explained below, if the patient is a minor, parental consent must also be
obtained in some States.) The regulations also permit disclosure without the
patient's consent in several situations, including reporting medical emergencies
or child abuse and certain communications among program staff.
The most commonly used exception to the general rule prohibiting disclosures
is for a program to obtain the client's consent. The regulations' requirements
regarding consent are somewhat unusual and strict and must be carefully
followed.
Consent
Most disclosures are permissible if a patient has signed a valid consent
form that has not expired or been revoked (§2.31). However, no information
that is obtained from a program (even if the patient consents) may be used in a
criminal investigation or prosecution of a patient unless a court order has been
issued under the special circumstances set forth in §2.65 (42 U.S.C. §§290dd-3(c),
ee-3(c); 42 C.F.R. §2.12(a),(d)).
A proper consent form must be in writing and must contain each of the items
contained in §2.31:
The name or general description of the program(s) making the
disclosure
The name or title of the individual or organization that will receive the
disclosure
The name of the patient
The purpose or need for the disclosure
How much and what kind of information will be disclosed
A statement that the patient may revoke the consent at any time, except to
the extent that the program has already acted in reliance on it
The date, event, or condition upon which the consent expires if not
previously revoked
The signature of the client (and, in some states, his or her parent)
The date on which the consent is signed (§2.31(a)).
A general medical release form, or any consent form that does not contain
all of the elements listed above, is not acceptable. (See
Exhibit 7-1.)
The Purpose of the Disclosure
The purpose of the disclosure and how much and what kind of information will
be disclosed are closely related issues. All disclosures, and especially those
made pursuant to a consent form, must be limited to information that is
necessary to accomplish the need or purpose of the disclosure (§2.13(a)).
It would be improper to disclose everything in a patient's file if the recipient
of the information only needs one specific piece of information.
In completing a consent form, it is important to determine the purpose or
need for the communication of information. Once this has been identified, it is
easier to determine how much and what kind of information will be disclosed,
tailoring it to what is essential to accomplish the need or purpose.
As an illustration, if a patient needs to have the fact that he or she is in
treatment verified in order to be eligible for a benefit program, the purpose of
the disclosure would be "to verify treatment status" and the amount and kind of
information to be disclosed would be "enrollment in treatment." The disclosure
would then be limited to a statement that "Susan Jones is receiving counseling
at XYZ Program."
The Patient's Right to Revoke Consent
The patient may revoke consent at any time, and the consent form must
include a statement to this effect. Revocation need not be in writing. If a
program has already made a disclosure prior to the revocation, the program has
acted in reliance on the consent and is not required to try to retrieve the
information.
The regulations state that "acting in reliance" includes providing services
in reliance on a consent form permitting disclosures to a third-party payer.
Thus, a program can bill the third-party payer for past services to the patient
even after consent has been revoked. However, a program that continues to
provide services after a patient has revoked a consent authorizing disclosure to
a third-party payer does so at its own financial peril.
Expiration of Consent
The form must also contain a date, event, or condition on which the consent
will expire if not previously revoked. A consent must last "no longer than
reasonably necessary to serve the purpose for which it is given" (§2.31(a)(9).
If the purpose of the disclosure can be expected to be accomplished in 5 or 10
days, it is better to fill in that amount of time rather than a longer period or
to have all consent forms uniformly expire in 60 or 90 days.
The consent form does not need to contain a specific expiration date, but
may instead specify an event or condition. For example, if a patient has been
placed on probation at work on the condition that he or she attend the program,
a consent form should be used that does not expire until the completion of the
period of probation. Alternatively, if a patient is being referred by the
program to a specialist for a single appointment, the consent form should
provide that it will expire after he or she has seen "Dr. X."
Signature by Minors and Parental Consent
A minor must always sign the consent form in order for a program to release
information -- even to his or her parent or guardian. The program must obtain
the parent's signature only if the program was required by State law to obtain
parental permission before providing treatment to the minor (§2.14). The
term "parent" includes parent, guardian, or other person legally responsible for
the minor.
In other words, if State law does not require the program to get parental
consent in order to provide services to a minor, then parental consent is not
required to make disclosures (§2.14(b)). If State law requires parental
consent to provide services to minors, then parental consent is required to make
any disclosures. The program must always obtain the minor's consent for
disclosures and cannot rely on the parent's signature alone.
There is one very limited exception to this rule, which is discussed below
in "Disclosure to Parents About Minors."
Required Notice Against Redisclosure
Once the consent form has been properly completed, there remains one last
formal requirement. Any disclosure made with written patient consent must be
accompanied by a written statement that the information disclosed is protected
by Federal law and that the recipient cannot further disclose it unless
permitted by the regulations (§2.32). This statement, not the consent form
itself, should be delivered and explained to the recipient at the time of
disclosure or earlier. (See Exhibit 7-2.)
The prohibition on redisclosure is clear and strict. Those who receive the
notice are prohibited from re-releasing information except as permitted by the
regulations. (Of course, a patient may sign a consent form authorizing a
redisclosure.)
The Use of Consent Forms
The fact that a patient has signed a proper consent form authorizing the
release of information does not force a program to make the proposed disclosure,
unless the program has also received a subpoena or court order (§§2.3(b);
2.61(a)(b)). The only obligation the program has is to refuse to honor a
consent that is expired, deficient, or otherwise known to be revoked, false, or
invalid (§2.31(c)).
In most cases, the decision whether or not to make a disclosure pursuant to
a consent form is within the discretion of the program unless State law requires
or prohibits disclosure once consent is given. In general, it is best to follow
this rule: disclose only what is necessary, for only as long as is necessary, in
light of the purpose of the communication.
Communication With Others
Given these rules regarding consent, consider the questions introduced at
the beginning of this chapter:
How can programs seek information about clients from collateral
and referral sources?
How can the program and the many diverse agencies concerned with or
responsible for the client's welfare communicate with each other without
violating the confidentiality rules?
Are there special rules about sharing information with criminal justice
agencies?
Can a program contact a parent of a minor patient without the minor's
consent?
Do programs have a duty to warn others of threats by patients, and if so,
how do they communicate the warning? Consider the following examples:
-If the client is threatening harm to him- or herself or another,
can the program call law enforcement authorities?
-How can programs handle patients who show up intoxicated or impaired and
insist on driving?
-Can programs call on the police if a patient becomes violent?
Can programs report child abuse?
Seeking Information from Collateral and Referral Sources
Making inquiries of employers, criminal justice agencies, schools, parents,
doctors and other health care entities might seem at first glance to pose no
risk to a patient's right to confidentiality, particularly if the person or
entity approached for information referred the patient to treatment. But it
does.
When a program that screens, assesses, or treats a patient asks an employer,
doctor, school, or parent to verify information it has obtained from the
patient, it is making a patient-identifying disclosure that the patient has
sought its services. In other words, when program staff seek information from
other sources, they are letting the sources know that the patient has asked for
AOD services. The Federal regulations generally prohibit this kind of
disclosure unless the patient consents.
How then is a program to proceed? The easiest way is to get the client's
consent to contact the employer, school, health care facility, and so forth.
As noted above, when filling out the consent form, thought should be given
to the "purpose of the disclosure" and "how much and what kind of information
will be disclosed." For example, if a program is assessing a client for
treatment and seeks records from a mental health provider, the purpose of the
disclosure would be "to obtain mental health treatment records to complete the
assessment." The "kind of information disclosed" would then be limited to a
statement that "Katherine Sampson (the patient) is being assessed by the XYZ
Program." No other information about Katherine Sampson would be released to the
mental health provider.
If the program seeks not only records, but seeks to discuss with the mental
health provider the treatment it provided the patient, the purpose of the
disclosure would be "to discuss mental health treatment provided to Katherine
Sampson by the mental health program." If the program merely seeks information,
the kind of information disclosed would, as in the example above, be limited to
a statement that "Katherine Sampson is being assessed by the XYZ Program."
However, if the program needs to disclose information it gained in its
assessment of Katherine Sampson to the mental health provider in order to
further the discussion, the kind of information disclosed would be "assessment
information about Katherine Sampson."
A program that routinely seeks collateral information from many sources
could consider asking the patient to sign a consent form that permits it to make
a disclosure for purposes of seeking information from collateral sources to any
one of a number of entities or persons listed on the consent form. Note that
this combination form must still include "the name or title of the individual or
the name of the organization" for each collateral source the program may
contact.
It is important to keep in mind that even when information is disclosed over
the telephone, the person disclosing it is still required to notify the
recipient of the information of the prohibition on redisclosure. Mention should
be made of this restriction during the conversation. For example, program staff
could say, "I'll be sending you a written statement that the information I gave
you about Ms. Sampson cannot be redisclosed."
Communications Among Agencies
IOT programs often need to be able to communicate on an ongoing basis with
the referral source or with other agencies offering services to clients, such as
mental health agencies or child welfare officials.
Again, the best way to proceed is to get the patient's consent. Care should
be taken in wording the consent form to permit the kinds of communications
necessary. For example, if the program needs ongoing communications with a
mental health provider, the "purpose of the disclosure" would be "coordination
of care for Sharon Dove" and "how much and what kind of information will be
disclosed" might be "treatment status, treatment issues, and progress in
treatment." If the program is treating a patient who is on probation at work
and whose continued employment is contingent on treatment, the "purpose of
disclosure" might be "to assist the patient to comply with employer's mandates"
or to "supply periodic reports about treatment" and "how much and what kind of
information will be disclosed" might be "progress in treatment." Note that the
kinds of information that will be disclosed in the two examples are quite
different. The program might well share detailed clinical information about a
client with a mental health provider if that would assist in coordinating care.
Disclosure to an employer would most likely be limited to a brief statement
about the patient's progress in treatment. Disclosure of clinical information
to an employer would, in most circumstances, be inappropriate.
When a client enters treatment voluntarily and not as a result of a referral
from an employer, program staff should maintain an open mind about whether
communications with an employer would be beneficial to the client. A client who
tells program staff that his or her employers will not be sympathetic about the
decision to enter treatment may well have an accurate picture of the employer's
attitude. Insistence by program staff on communicating with the employer may
cost a client his or her job. If such communication takes place without the
client's consent, the program may find itself facing an unpleasant lawsuit.
The program should also give considerable thought to the expiration date or
event the consent form should contain. For coordinating care with a mental
health provider, it might be appropriate to have the consent form expire when
treatment by either party ends. A consent form permitting disclosures to an
employer might expire when the patient's probationary period at work ends.
Disclosure Rules Regarding Mandated Services
There are special rules about disclosing AOD information about patients
mandated into treatment by the criminal justice system. Programs assessing and
treating clients who are required to participate as part of a criminal justice
sanction must follow the confidentiality rules. However, some special rules
apply when a patient is in treatment as an official condition of probation,
sentence, dismissal of charges, release from detention, or other disposition of
any criminal proceeding, and information is being disclosed to the mandating
agency.
A consent form (or court order) is still required before any disclosure can
be made about an offender who is mandated into assessment or treatment.
However, the rules concerning the length of time that a consent remains valid
are different. Also, a "criminal justice system consent" cannot be revoked
before its expiration event or date.
Specifically, the regulations require that the following factors be
considered in determining how long a criminal justice system consent will remain
in effect:
The anticipated duration of treatment
The type of criminal proceeding in which the offender is involved
The need for treatment information in dealing with the proceeding
When the final disposition will occur, and
Anything else the patient, program or criminal justice agency believes is
relevant.
These rules allow programs to continue to use a traditional expiration
condition for a consent form that was formerly the only one allowed -- "when
there is a substantial change in the patient's criminal justice system status."
This formulation appears to work well. A substantial change in status occurs
whenever the patient moves from one phase of the criminal justice system to the
next. For example, if a patient is on probation or parole, there would be a
change in criminal justice status when the probation or parole ends, either by
successful completion or revocation. Thus, the program could provide an
assessment or periodic reports to the probation or parole officer monitoring the
client, and could even testify at a revocation hearing if it so desired, since
no change in criminal justice status would occur until after that hearing.
As for the revocability of the consent (the rules under which the offender
can take back his or her consent), the regulations provide that the consent form
can state that consent cannot be revoked until a certain specified date or
condition occurs. The regulations permit the criminal justice system consent
form to be irrevocable so that a patient who has agreed to enter treatment in
lieu of prosecution or punishment cannot then prevent the court, probation
department, or other agency from monitoring his or her progress. Note that
although a criminal justice system consent may be made irrevocable for a
specified period of time, its irrevocability must end no later than the final
disposition of the criminal proceeding. Thereafter, the patient may freely
revoke consent.
Several other considerations relating to criminal justice system referrals
are important. First, any information that an eligible criminal justice agency
receives from a treatment program can be used by that justice agency only in
connection with its official duties with respect to that particular criminal
proceeding. The information may not be used in other proceedings, for other
purposes, or with respect to other individuals (§2.34(d)).
Second, whenever possible, it is best to have the judge or referring agency
require that a proper criminal justice system consent form be signed by the
patient before he or she is referred to the treatment program. If that is not
possible, the treatment program should have the client sign a criminal justice
system consent form at his or her first appointment. With a proper criminal
justice consent form signed, the AOD program can communicate with the referring
criminal justice agency even if the patient appears for assessment or treatment
only once. This avoids the unfortunate problems that can arise if a patient
mandated into assessment or treatment does not sign a proper consent form and
leaves before the assessment or treatment has been completed. Exhibit 7-3 is a consent form for the release of confidential information
for a criminal justice referral.
If a program fails to have the patient sign a criminal justice system form
and the client fails to complete the assessment process or treatment, the
program has few options when faced with a request for information from the
referring criminal justice agency. The program could attempt to locate the
patient and ask him or her to sign a consent form, but that, of course, is
unlikely to happen. And there is some question whether a court can issue an
order to authorize the program to release information about a referral who has
left the program in this type of case. This is because the regulations allow a
court to order disclosure of treatment information for the purpose of
investigating or prosecuting a patient for a crime only where the crime was
"extremely serious," and a parole or probation violation generally will not meet
that criterion.
Therefore, unless a consent form is obtained by the judge or criminal
justice agency or by the treatment program at the very beginning of the
assessment or treatment process, the program may end up in a position where it
is prevented from providing any information to the criminal justice agency that
referred the patient.
If a patient referred by a criminal justice agency never applies for or
receives services from the program, that fact may be communicated to the
referring agency without patient consent (§2.13(c)(2)). But once a client
even makes an appointment to visit the program, consent or a court order is
needed for any disclosures.
Disclosure to Parents About Minors
Although this TIP primarily addresses the treatment of adults in IOT
programs, it is nonetheless useful to be aware of the confidentiality
regulations that relate to minors. As has been noted above, programs may not
communicate with the parents of a minor patient unless they get the minor's
written consent.
In getting the minor's consent, the program should discuss with the minor
whether the minor and the program want to be able to confer with the minor's
mother and/or father a single time or periodically. This decision will affect
how the program fills out the consent form.
If the counselor and/or the minor decide that the counselor should confer
with the minor's mother or father only once, "the purpose of the disclosure"
would be "to obtain information from Mary's parents in order to assist in the
screening (or assessment) process" and "how much and what kind of information
will be disclosed" would be "Mary's application for services." The expiration
date should the date the counselor thinks screening or assessment will be
completed.
If the program and Mary decide they want the program's counselor to freely
speak with Mary's parents over a longer period of time, the program would fill
out the consent form differently. The purpose of the disclosure would be "to
provide periodic reports to Mary's parents" and the kind of information to be
disclosed would be "Mary's progress in treatment." The expiration on this kind
of open-ended consent form might be set at the date the program and Mary foresee
her counseling ending or even "when Mary's participation in the program ends"
(although Mary can revoke the consent at any time).
What if Mary refuses to consent? Since the Federal regulations prohibit
disclosures without Mary's consent, the program cannot confer with her parents.
Indeed, even if it had regular meetings with them, it must refuse to communicate
any further information, including whether Mary is attending the program.
One special situation deserves mention. The Federal regulations contain an
exception permitting a program director to communicate with a minor's parents in
one limited circumstance: If a minor applies for services in a State where
parental consent is required to provide services, but the minor refuses to
consent to the program's notifying her parents, the regulations permit the
program to contact a parent without consent, if two conditions are met:
The program director believes that the minor, because of extreme
youth or medical condition, does not have the capacity to decide rationally
whether to consent to the notification; and
The program director believes the disclosure is necessary to cope with a
substantial threat to the life or well-being of the minor or someone else.
If these two conditions do not exist, the program must explain to the minor
that while she has the right to refuse to consent to any communication with a
parent, the program can provide no services without such communication and
parental consent (§2.14(d)). In States where parental consent is not
required for treatment, the regulations permit a program to withhold services if
the minor will not authorize a disclosure that the program needs in order to
obtain financial reimbursement for that minor's treatment. The regulations add
a warning, however, that such action might violate a State or local law (§2.14(b)).
Section 2.14(d) applies only to applicants for services. It does not apply
to minors who are already patients. Thus, programs cannot contact parents of
patients without consent even if they are concerned about the behavior of their
children.
Duty to Warn
For most treatment professionals, the issue of reporting a patient's threat
to commit a crime is a troubling one. Many professionals feel that they have an
ethical, professional, or moral obligation to prevent a crime when they are in a
position to do so, particularly when the potential crime is a serious one.
While these issues may not arise often, IOT programs will almost certainly face
questions about their "duty to warn" someone of a client's threatened suicide, a
patient's threat to harm another, or a patient's insistence on driving while
impaired.
There has been a developing trend in the law to require psychiatrists and
other therapists to take "reasonable steps" to protect an intended victim when
they learn that a patient presents a "serious danger of violence to another."
This trend started with the case of Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of
California, 17 Cal.3d 425 (1976), in which the California Supreme Court held
a psychologist liable for money damages because he failed to warn a potential
victim his patient threatened to kill and then did kill. The court ruled that
if a psychologist or other therapist knows that a patient poses a serious risk
of violence to a particular person, the psychologist or therapist has a duty "to
warn the intended victim or others likely to apprise the victim of the danger,
to notify the police, or to take whatever other steps are reasonably necessary
under the circumstances."
Strictly speaking, the Tarasoff ruling applies only in California.
Nevertheless, courts in a number of other States have followed Tarasoff in
finding therapists liable for money damages when they failed to warn someone
threatened by a patient. Most of these cases are limited to situations where
patients threaten a specific identifiable victim, and they do not generally
apply where a patient makes a threat without identifying the intended victim.
States that have enacted laws on the subject have similarly limited the duty to
warn to such situations.
In a situation where a program thinks it might be faced with a "duty to
warn" question, there are always at least two -- and sometimes three --
questions that need to be answered:
Is there a legal duty to warn in this particular situation under
State law?
Even if there is no State legal requirement that the program must warn an
intended victim or the police, does the program feel a moral obligation to warn
someone?
The first question can only be answered by an attorney familiar with the law
in the State in which the program operates. If the answer to the first question
is "no," it is advisable to discuss the second question with a knowledgeable
lawyer, too.
If the answer to questions 1 or 2 is "yes," can the program warn
the victim or someone likely to be able to take action without violating the
Federal AOD regulations?
The problem is that there is a conflict between the Federal confidentiality
requirements and the "duty to warn" imposed by States that have adopted the
principles of the Tarasoff case. Simply put, the Federal
confidentiality law and regulations prohibit the type of disclosure that Tarasoff
and similar cases require, unless the disclosure can be made by using one of the
regulations' narrow exceptions. [Moreover, the Federal AOD regulations make it
clear that Federal law overrides any State law that conflicts with the
regulations (§2.20). In the only case, as of this writing, that addresses
this conflict between Federal and State law (Hasenie v. United States,
541 F. Supp. 999 (D. Md. 1982)), the court ruled that the Federal
confidentiality law prohibited any report.]
There are four ways a program can proceed when a patient makes a threat to
harm him- or herself or another:
The program can go to court and request a court order authorizing
the disclosure. The program must take care that the court abides by the
requirements of the Federal AOD regulations. (See the discussion of the court
order exception below.)
The program can make a disclosure that does not identify the individual who
threatens to commit the crime as a patient. (See the discussion of the
exception for non-patient-identifying disclosures below.) This can be
accomplished either by making an anonymous report or -- for a program that is
part of a larger non-AOD entity -- by making the report in the larger entity's
name. For example, a counselor employed by an AOD program that is part of a
mental health facility could phone the police or the potential target of an
attack, identify herself as "a counselor at the New City Mental Health Clinic"
and explain the risk to the potential target. This would convey the vital
information without identifying the patient as an AOD abuser. Counselors at
freestanding AOD units cannot give the name of the program.
The program can make a report to medical personnel if the threat presents a
medical emergency that poses an immediate threat to the health of any individual
and requires immediate medical intervention (§2.51). (See the discussion
of the medical emergency exception below.)
The program can obtain the patient's consent. This may be unlikely, unless
the client is suicidal. (Note that the Federal statutes and regulations
strictly prohibit any investigation or prosecution of a client based on
information obtained from records unless the court order exception used 42
U.S.C. §§290 dd-3(c) and ee-3(c) and 42 C.F.R. §2.12(d)(1)).
If none of these options is practical, what should a program do? It is,
after all, confronted with conflicting moral and legal obligations.
If a program believes there is clear and imminent danger to a patient or a
particular other person, it is probably wiser to err on the side of making an
effective report about the danger, to the authorities or to the threatened
individual. This is especially true in States that already follow the Tarasoffrule.
While each case presents different questions, it is doubtful that any
prosecution (or successful civil lawsuit) under the confidentiality regulations
would be brought against a program or a counselor who warned about potential
violence when the counselor believed in good faith that there was real danger to
a particular individual. On the other hand, a civil lawsuit for failure to warn
may well result if the threat is actually carried out. In any event, the
program should at least try to make the warning in a manner that does not
identify the individual as an AOD abuser.
"Duty to warn" issues constitute an area in which staff training, as well as
a staff review process may be helpful.
Driving While Impaired
It is inevitable in an IOT program that at some point a patient will arrive
at the treatment program intoxicated. If the patient is not in condition to
participate appropriately in treatment or to drive home, what should the program
do?
There are at least two strategies a program can use to prevent a patient
impaired by AODs from driving. First, the program can offer the client a ride
home or taxi fare for a ride home.
Second, the program can maintain a room where patients can "sleep it off"
and urge patients who arrive at the program intoxicated to stay at the program
until they are in a condition to drive. If the patient would not otherwise
remain at the program for 8 to 10 hours, the program might be wise to alert the
patient's family that he or she will be detained. Since the program must have
written consent from the client to call the family in this kind of circumstance,
it would also be wise to obtain consents from patients to permit calls to family
members when the patients are detained, for whatever reasons.
What if the patient refuses either transportation home or a place to rest
until the AODs wear off? What if the patient leaves the program intending to
drive home? Does the program have a duty to call the police to prevent an
accident? Does it risk a lawsuit if it fails to do so?
As mentioned above, this is a question of State law and can only be answered
by an attorney familiar with the law in the State where the program operates.
The program should consult an attorney to determine what its responsibility is
in this area.
In most States, it is unlikely that the program would be liable,
particularly if it had made an effort to stop the client from driving, using
either the strategies outlined above or some other method. As noted above, in
States that follow the Tarasoff doctrine, liability has generally been
limited to those situations where a patient threatens to harm a specific person.
Liability has generally not been imposed in situations where a patient poses a
threat to the community in general.
Even if the program would not be liable if one of its patients leaves the
program impaired and causes an accident, it may nonetheless feel an obligation
to call the police if all other attempts to prevent the client from driving
fail. However, caution must be exercised so that it does not unnecessarily
violate the patient's confidentiality.
For example, the program can call the police and tell them that a person
driving a 1991 red Ford Pinto with a license number "XYZ 123" is driving from
the intersection of Maple and Third and heading toward downtown and is not in a
condition to drive. The program should ask the police to respond immediately.
What the program cannot do is tell the police that the patient has an AOD abuse
problem. This means it cannot tell the police 1) that the patient is impaired
by AODs or 2) the program's name (because that would tell the police that the
client has an AOD abuse problem).
In order to get the patient's license number and a description of his or her
car, it may be necessary to detain the patient for a few minutes. However, the
program should avoid using force, since the patient could sue the program for
battery or false imprisonment.
Discharging an Unstable Patient
Patients at IOT programs may include severely troubled individuals, some of
whom may pose a threat to others, disrupt the program, or make little
discernible progress. What should the staff of a program do if they believe
that discharging a patient is the most appropriate disposition, but have
concerns that, without ties to a program, the patient may deteriorate and pose a
serious danger to others -- identifiable or not?
When a program seeks to involuntarily discharge an unstable patient, there
are at least three questions that need to be answered:
Can the program involuntarily discharge a patient -- whether the
discharge is for being disruptive, for not making progress, or for nonpayment?
This question can only be answered by an attorney familiar with the law of the
State in which the program operates. In some States, the answer may vary
depending upon the reason for discharge.
If the program can involuntarily discharge the patient, does it have a duty
do something about the patient -- ensuring that he or she gets continuing care
by someone else? Again, the answer to this question lies in State law. Some
States might hold a program liable for "dumping" a patient who had few resources
to fend for him- or herself and suffered harm.
Does the program have a duty to warn someone about the patient's
instability and potential for harming him- or herself or another? Once again,
State law governs this "duty to warn" question. However, note that in this
instance, the program is no longer faced with an imminent threat of "serious
danger of violence to another." The program is concerned about a patient who
has the potential of deteriorating further and becoming a serious danger to
another. It therefore seems unlikely that a program would be held responsible
for discharging a patient who became more unstable and harmed someone unless
there was good reason to believe that he or she would rapidly deteriorate and
become a danger to a particular person.
For example, if there were a previous incident in which the patient harmed a
particular person when he or she was discharged or left another treatment
program, and the patient appears to be a continuing threat to that person, the
program would be well advised to warn the person (or someone likely to apprise
the person) that the patient is about to be discharged. Of course, it is best
to do so without violating the Federal regulations.
Reporting Patients' Criminal Activity
What should a program do when a patient tells a staff member that she
intends to outfit her children in new clothes by shoplifting -- a crime the
counselor knows she has committed many times? Does the program have a duty to
tell the police? And does a program have a responsibility to call the police
when a client discloses to a counselor that he has participated in a serious
crime -- some time in the past?
These are two very different questions that require separate analyses,
although they have similar answers.
A program generally does not have a duty to warn another person or the
police about a patient's intent to commit a crime unless the patient presents a
serious danger of violence to an identifiable individual. Shoplifting rarely
involves violence, and it unlikely that the counselor will know which stores are
to be victimized. Petty crime like shoplifting is an important issue that
should be dealt with therapeutically. It is not something a program should
report to the police.
Suppose, however, that a patient admits during a counseling session that he
killed someone during a robbery 3 months ago. Here the program is not warning
anyone of a threat, but serious harm did come to another person. Does the
program have a responsibility to report the patient's admission to the police?
When clients disclose to a counselor that they committed a crime some time
in the past, there are generally three questions that need to be answered.
Is there a legal duty to report the past criminal activity to the
police under State law?
Generally, the answer to this question is no. In most States, there is no
duty to report a crime committed in the past to the police. Even those States
that continue to regard failure to report a crime as a crime itself rarely
prosecute violations of the law.
Does State law permit counselors to report the crime to the police if they
want to?
Whether or not there is a legal obligation imposed on citizens to report
past crimes to the police, State law may make conversations between counselors
of AOD programs and their patients privileged. AOD treatment professionals have
a special relationship with their patients. In many States this relationship is
protected by laws designed to keep confidences private. Such State law
privileges may exempt counselors from any requirement to report past criminal
activity by patients and may also prohibit counselors from disclosing a
patient's confession even if they want to.
State laws vary widely on the protections they accord communications between
clients and counselors. In some States, admissions of past crimes may be
considered privileged and counselors may be prohibited from reporting them. In
other States, admissions may not be privileged. Moreover, each State defines
the kinds of relationships protected differently. Whether a communication about
past criminal activity is privileged (and therefore cannot be reported) may
depend upon the type of professional the counselor is and whether he or she is
licensed or certified by the State.
Any program that is especially concerned about this issue should ask a local
attorney for an opinion letter about whether there is a duty to report and
whether any counselor-patient privilege either exempts counselors from that duty
or prohibits voluntary reporting.
If State law requires a report (or permits one and the program
decides to make a report), how can it comply with the Federal confidentiality
regulations and State law?
Any program that decides to make a report to law enforcement authorities
about a patient's prior criminal activity must do so without violating the
Federal confidentiality regulations. A program that decides to report a
patient's crime can comply with the Federal regulations by following one of the
first two methods above in the discussion about duty to warn. It should obtain
a court order or make the report in a way that does not identify the individual
as an AOD patient.
Because of the complicated nature of this issue, any program considering
reporting a patient's admission of criminal activity should seek the advice of a
lawyer familiar with local and Federal laws.
Crimes on Premises or Against Personnel
When a client has committed or threatens to commit a crime on program
premises or against program personnel, the regulations permit the program to
report the crime to a law enforcement agency or to seek its assistance. In such
a situation, without any special authorization, the program can disclose the
circumstances of the incident, including the suspect's name, address, last known
whereabouts, and status as a patient in the program (§2.12(c)(5)).
Reporting Child Abuse And Neglect
All 50 States have statutes requiring reporting when there is reasonable
cause to believe or suspect child abuse or neglect. While many State statutes
are similar, each has different rules about what kinds of conditions must be
reported, who must report, and when and how reports must be made.
Most States now require not only physicians but also educators and social
service workers to report child abuse. Most States require an immediate oral
report and many now have toll-free numbers to facilitate reporting. (Half the
States require that both oral and written reports be made.) All States extend
immunity from prosecution to persons reporting child abuse and neglect. Most
States provide for penalties for failure to report.
Because of the variation in State laws, programs should consult an attorney
familiar with State law to ensure that their reporting practices are in
compliance. Many State statutes require that staff report instances of abuse to
administrators, who are then required to make an official report. Thus,
programs concerned about this issue should establish reporting protocols to
bring suspected child abuse to the attention of program administrators, who in
turn should shoulder the responsibility to make the mandated reports.
The Federal confidentiality regulations permit programs to comply with State
laws that require the reporting of child abuse and neglect. However, this
exception to the general rule prohibiting disclosure of any information about a
patient applies only to initial reports of child abuse or neglect. Programs may
not respond to followup requests for information or even subpoenas for
additional information, even if the records are sought for use in civil or
criminal proceedings resulting from the program's initial report, unless the
patient consents or the appropriate court issues a special court order (see
below).
More Exceptions to the General Rule
Reference has been made to other exceptions the Federal confidentiality
rules make to the general rule prohibiting disclosure. In the pages that
follow, six additional kinds of exceptions are explained:
Information that does not reveal the patient is an AOD user
Disclosures authorized by a special court order
Information disclosed in a medical emergency
Information shared with staff within the program
Information disclosed to an outside agency that provides the program with
services
Information disclosed to researchers, auditors, and evaluators.
A number of these exceptions have been mentioned above. A brief explanation
of each follows.
Communications Not Disclosing Patient-Identifying Information
The Federal regulations permit programs to disclose information about a
patient if the program reveals no patient-identifying information.
"Patient-identifying" information is information that identifies someone as an
AOD abuser. Thus, a program may disclose information about a patient if that
information does not identify the patient as an AOD abuser or verify anyone
else's identification of the patient as an AOD abuser.
There are two basic ways a program may make a disclosure that does not
identify a patient. The first way is obvious: a program can report aggregate
data about its population (summing up information that gives an overview of the
patients served in the program) or some portion of its population. Thus, for
example, a program could tell the newspaper that in the last 6 months it had 43
patients, 10 female and 33 male.
The second way is trickier: A program can communicate information about a
patient in a way that does not reveal the person's status as an AOD abuse
patient (§ 2.12(a)(i)). For example, a program that provides services to
patients with other problems or illnesses as well as AOD abuse may disclose
information about a particular patient as long as the fact that the patient has
an AOD abuse problem is not revealed. An even more specific example: A program
that is part of a general hospital could have a counselor call the police about
a threat a patient made, so long as the counselor does not disclose that the
client has an AOD abuse problem or is a patient of the AOD abuse treatment
program.
Programs that provide only AOD treatment services or that provide a full
range of services but are identified by the general public as AOD programs
cannot disclose information that identifies a patient under this exception,
since letting someone know a counselor is calling from the "XYZ IOT Program"
will automatically identify the patient as someone who received services from
the program. However, a freestanding program can sometimes make "anonymous"
disclosures, that is, disclosures that do not mention the name of the program or
otherwise reveal the patient's status as an AOD abuser.
Court-Ordered Disclosures
A State or Federal court may issue an order that will permit a program to
make a disclosure about a client that would otherwise be forbidden. A court may
issue one of these authorizing orders, however, only after it follows certain
special procedures and makes particular determinations required by the
regulations. A subpoena, search warrant, or arrest warrant, even when signed by
a judge, is not sufficient, standing alone, to require or even to permit a
program to disclose information (§2.61). (For an explanation about how to
deal with subpoenas and warrants, see Confidentiality: A Guide to the
Federal Laws and Regulations, published in 1991 by the Legal Action Center,
153 Waverly Place, New York, NY 10014.)
Before a court can issue an authorizing court order, the program and any
patient whose records are sought must be given notice of the application for the
order and some opportunity to make an oral or written statement to the court.
[However, if the information is being sought to investigate or prosecute a
patient, only the program need be notified (§2.65). And if the information
is sought to investigate or prosecute the program, no prior notice at all is
required (§2.66).] Generally, the application and any court order must use
fictitious names for any known patient, and all court proceedings in connection
with the application must remain confidential unless the patient requests
otherwise (§§2.64(a), (b), 2.65, 2.66).
Before issuing an authorizing order, the court must find that there is "good
cause" for the disclosure. A court can find "good cause" only if it determines
that the public interest and the need for disclosure outweigh any adverse effect
that the disclosure will have on the patient, the doctor-patient relationship,
and the effectiveness of the program's treatment services. Before it may issue
an order, the court must also find that other ways of obtaining the information
are not available or would be ineffective (§2.64(d)). The judge may
examine the records before making a decision (§2.64(c)).
If the purpose of seeking the court order is to obtain authorization to
disclose information in order to investigate or prosecute a client for a crime,
the court must also find that 1) the crime involved is extremely serious, such
as an act causing or threatening to cause death or serious injury; 2) the
records sought are likely to contain information of significance to the
investigation or prosecution; 3) there is no other practical way to obtain the
information; and 4) the public interest in disclosure outweighs any actual or
potential harm to the patient, the doctor-patient relationship, and the ability
of the program to provide services to other patients. When law enforcement
personnel seek the order, the court must also find that the program had an
opportunity to be represented by independent counsel. If the program is a
governmental entity, it must be represented by counsel (§2.65(d)).
There are also limits on the scope of disclosure that a court may authorize,
even when it finds good cause. The disclosure must be limited to information
essential to fulfill the purpose of the order, and disclosure must be restricted
to those persons who need the information for that purpose. The court should
also take any other steps that are necessary to protect the patient's
confidentiality, including sealing court records from public scrutiny (§2.64(e)).
The court may order disclosure of "confidential communications" by a client
to the program only if the disclosure a) is necessary to protect against a
threat to life or of serious bodily injury, or b) is necessary to investigate or
prosecute an extremely serious crime (including child abuse), or c) is in
connection with a proceeding at which the patient has already presented evidence
concerning confidential communications (§2.63).
Medical Emergencies
A program may make disclosures to public or private medical personnel "who
have a need for information about a patient for the purpose of treating a
condition which poses an immediate threat to the health of any individual." The
regulations define "medical emergency" as a situation that poses an immediate
threat to health and requires immediate medical intervention (§2.51).
The medical emergency exception permits disclosure only to medical
personnel. This means that this exception can not be used as the basis for a
disclosure to the police or other nonmedical personnel, including parents.
Under this exception, however, a program could notify a private physician
about a suicidal patient so that medical intervention can be arranged, and the
physician could, in turn, notify a patient's parents or other relatives, so long
as no mention is made of the patient's AOD abuse problem.
Whenever a disclosure is made to cope with a medical emergency, the program
must document in the client's records the name and affiliation of the recipient
of the information, the name of the individual making the disclosure, the date
and time of the disclosure, and the nature of the emergency.
Qualified Service Organization Agreements
If a program routinely needs to share certain information with an outside
agency that provides services to the program, it can enter into what is known as
a qualified service organization agreement (QSOA).
A QSOA is a written agreement between a program and a person providing
services to the program, in which that person:
Acknowledges that in receiving, storing, processing, or otherwise
dealing with any patient records from the program, it is fully bound by the
Federal confidentiality regulations; and
Promises that, if necessary, it will resist in judicial proceedings any
efforts to obtain access to patient records except as permitted by these
regulations (§§2.11, 2.12(c)(4)).
A QSOA should only be used when an agency or official outside of the program
is providing a service to the program itself. An example is when laboratory
analyses or data processing is performed for the program by an outside agency.
A QSOA is not a substitute for individual consent in other situations.
Disclosures under a QSOA must be limited to information that is needed by others
so that the program can function effectively. QSOAs may not be used between
programs providing AOD treatment services. A sample QSOA is provided in Exhibit 7-4.
Internal Program Communications
The Federal regulations permit some information to be disclosed to
individuals within the same program.
The restrictions on disclosure in these regulations
do not apply to communications of information between or among personnel having
a need for the information in connection with their duties that arise out of the
provision of diagnosis, treatment, or referral for treatment of alcohol or drug
abuse if the communications are (i) within a program or (ii) between a program
and an entity that has direct administrative control over that program (§2.12(c)(3)).
This means that staff who have access to patient records because they work
for or administratively direct the program -- including full- or part-time
employees and unpaid volunteers -- may consult among themselves or otherwise
share information if their substance abuse work so requires.
Other Requirements
Patient Notice and Access to Records
The Federal confidentiality regulations require programs to notify patients
of their right to confidentiality and to give them a written summary of the
regulations' requirements. The notice and summary should be handed to patients
when they begin participating in the program or soon thereafter (§2.22(a)).
The regulations also contain a sample notice.
Programs have the discretion to decide when to permit clients to view or
obtain copies of their records, unless State law grants the right of access to
records. The Federal regulations do not require programs to obtain written
consent from clients before permitting them to see their own records.
Security of Records
The Federal regulations require programs to keep written records in a secure
room, a locked file cabinet, a safe or other similar container. The program
should establish written procedures that regulate access to and use of clients'
records. Either the program director or a single staff person should be
designated to process inquiries and requests for information (§2.16).
A Final Note
AOD treatment programs should identify and retain a lawyer familiar with
local laws affecting their programs. As has already been mentioned, State law
governs many areas with regard to screening and assessing adolescents. A local
practitioner is the best source for advice on such issues. Moreover, in some
areas, the law is still developing. For example, programs' duty to warn of
patients' threats to harm others is constantly changing as courts in different
States consider cases brought against a variety of care providers. Programs
trying to decide how to handle such a situation need up-to-the minute advice on
their legal responsibilities. It is recommended that IOT staff routinely
receive regular legal issues updates as part of their staff development
processes.
Research, Audit, or Evaluation
The confidentiality regulations also permit programs to disclose
patient-identifying information to researchers, auditors and evaluators without
patient consent, providing that certain safeguards described in Sections 2.52
and 2.53 of the Federal regulations are met (§§2.52, 2.53). (For a
more complete explanation of the requirements of §§2.52 and 2.53, see
Confidentiality: A Guide to the Federal Laws and Regulations, published
in 1991 by the Legal Action Center, 153 Waverly Place, New York, NY 10014.)
Endnote
This chapter was written for the consensus panel by Margaret K.
Brooks, Esq.